What's coming in the second part of this course?
When we solve equation of the form $$ \frac{df(x)}{dx} = \lambda f(x), $$ the general soluition is $$ f(x) = c e^{\lambda x}. $$ We say $e^{\lambda x}$ is an eigenfunction for the operator $d/dx$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$, here $\lambda$ can be any complex number.
If you give me a function $f(x)$, we can try to write it as a linear combination of these easy to understand pieces $e^{\lambda x}$. Say $$ f(x) = \int_{C} c(\lambda) e^{\lambda x} d\lambda $$ The benefit for doing this? If a differential operator $d/dx$ walk to it, we would have $$ (d/dx) f(x) = \int_{\lambda} c(\lambda) (d/dx) e^{\lambda x} d\lambda = \int_{\lambda} c(\lambda) \lambda e^{\lambda x} d\lambda. $$ Of course, you would immediately complain:
Let's keep these questions in our head, we will return to those.
So, what is Fourier transformation? If you go on wiki, or open some textbook, you see the following definition: given a function $f(x)$ (with some condition on it), we can define $$ F(p) := \int_{x \in \R} f(x) e^{-ipx} dx. $$ This is called the Fourier transformation.
Let's throw in some input and see what we get.
$$ f(x) = \cosh(x) = (e^{x} + e^{-x} )/2. $$ This function grows to infinity when $x \to \pm \infty$, indeed, when $x \to +\infty$, $e^x$ dominate, and $x \to -\infty$ we have $e^{-x}$ dominate. Either way, you blow up. Good luck when integrating $\int_\R f(x) dx$.
But, let's try to do the Fourier transformation anyway. We get $$ F(p) = \int_x f(x) e^{-ipx} dx = (1/2) \int_\R e^{(1-ip)x} dx + (1/2) \int_\R e^{(-1-ip)x} dx. $$ OK, we cannot continue.
$f(x)$ need to have sufficient 'decay' near infinity for the Fourier transformation to make sense. More precisely, a sufficient condition is that $f(x)$ is 'absolutely integrable', which means $$ \int_\R |f(x)|dx < \infty. $$ Given this condition, we know $$ |F(p)| = | \int_\R e^{-ipx} f(x) dx | \leq \int_\R |e^{-ipx} f(x)| dx = \int_\R |f(x)| dx < \infty. $$ so we are safe.
The Gaussian. $f(x) = e^{-x^2}. $ It decays pretty nicely in both directions.
Since we learned our lesson, we need to do a check first $$ \int_\R e^{-x^2} dx = \sqrt{\pi}. $$ Great, it is finite.
Now, let's Fourier transform. $$ F(p) = \int e^{-ipx - x^2} dx = \int_\R e^{- (x-ip/2)^2 - p^2/4} dx = e^{-p^2/4} \int_{u \in -ip/2+\R} e^{-u^2} du $$ where we used the new variable $u = -ip/2+x$.
We can move the contour for $u$ as long as the integral is convergent. Recall from last Wednesday's lecture, $e^{-u^2}$ decays fast to $0$ when $|u| \to \infty$ in the sectors $\arg(u) \in (-\pi/4, \pi/4)$ and $\arg(u) \in \pi + (-\pi/4, \pi/4)$. So, we are going to move the integration contour of $u$ from the shifted real line $-ip/2+\R$ back to $\R$. We get $$ \int_{u \in -ip/2+\R} e^{-u^2} du = \int_{u \in \R} e^{-u^2} du = \sqrt{\pi}.$$ Thus, we get $$ F(p) = \sqrt{\pi} e^{-p^2/4}.$$
Success!
Let $f(x) = 1/(1+x^2)$. Let's check that $f(x)$ is absolutely integrable first $$ \int_\R f(x) dx = \int_{C_R} f(z) dz = 2\pi i Res_{z=i} f(z) = 2\pi i \frac{1}{2i } = \pi. $$ where $C_{+,R}$ is the contour consist of two part
Equivalently, we can choose a different contour $C_{-,R}$, which also consist of two part
Note that when we go around $C_{-,R}$ it goes around the singularity of $f(z)$ at $z=-i$ in the 'negative' (clockwise) direction, hence we get $$ \int_{C_{-,R}} f(z) dz = (-2\pi i) Res_{z=-i} f(z) = -2\pi i \frac{1}{-2i} = \pi. $$ Whew! the two minus sign cancels, we get the same answer.
Now, let's compute the little variation $$ F(p) = \int_\R e^{-ipx} f(x) dx. $$ We first take the 'truncation' approximation, which recovers the original limit under the limit $R \to \infty$. $$ F(p) = \lim_{R \to \infty} \int_{-R}^R e^{-ipx} f(x) dx. $$ Then, we try to 'close the contour', by connecting the point $R$ to $-R$ along some way. Due to this exponential factor $e^{-ipz}$, it matters whether we close the contour in the upper half-plane, or the lower one. Indeed, we have $$ |e^{-ipz}| = e^{Re(-ip(x+iy))} = e^{Re(-ipx + py)} = e^{py} = e^{p Im(z)}. $$ So,
Thus, for $p \geq 0$, we can complete the by the lower-half-semicircle $C_{-,R}$. We get $$ (p\geq 0) F(p) = \int_{C_{-,R}} \frac{e^{-ipz}}{1+z^2} dz = (-2\pi i) Res_{z=-i} \frac{e^{-ipz}}{1+z^2} = \pi e^{-p}. $$ Similarly, for $p \geq 0$, we get $$ (p\leq 0) F(p) = \int_{C_{+,R}} \frac{e^{-ipz}}{1+z^2} dz = (2\pi i) Res_{z=i} \frac{e^{-ipz}}{1+z^2} = \pi e^{p}. $$ We can write the result in a cool way as $$ F(p) = \pi e^{-|p|}. $$ So when $|p| \to \infty$, we see $F(p) \to 0$ very quickly.
warm up:Does the function $f(x)=1$ admits Fourier transformation? Why? How about $f(x) = 1 / (1+|x|)$?
Find the Fourier transformation of the following functions. $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & 0<x<1 \cr 0 & \text{else} \end{cases} $$
$$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1+x & -1<x<0 \cr 1-x & 0<x<1 \cr 0 & \text{else} \end{cases} $$