Due Monday (Nov 29) 9pm. problem 6 contains a typo, and it is updated now.
1. In class we have seen that a function f(x) may be differentiable everywhere, but the derivative function f′(x) is not continuous. In this problem, we will see that discontinuity is not a removable singularity. Assume f:R→R is differentiable. Assume that limx→0f′(x)=1. Prove that f′(0)=1. (Hint, you can use mean value theorem, and definition of the f′(0). )
2. If f:[0,1]→R is a differentiable function such that f′(0)=f′(1)=0, is it true that there exists a c∈(0,1), such that f′(c)=0 as well? If not, give a counter-example.
3. Ross Ex 29.3
4. Ross Ex 29.5
5. Ross Ex 30.1
6. Prove that limx→0+x−ne−1/x=0. Hint: let u=1/x, and turn the problem into a u→∞ limit calculation, then Taylor expand eu=1+u+u2/2!+⋯+un/n!+⋯. (There was a typo in the first version, I wrote xne−1/x instead. You can either do the wrong problem, or do the corrected ones. )
Solution
1. Assume that limx→0f′(x)=1. Prove that f′(0)=1. (Hint, you can use mean value theorem, and definition of the f′(0). )
By mean value theorem for interval [0,δ], we have
δ−0f(δ)−f(0)=f′(xδ) for
some xδ∈(0,δ). Thus as δ→0, xδ→0, hence
δ→0limδ−0f(δ)−f(0)=δ→0limf′(xδ)=x→0limf′(x)1
2. If f:[0,1]→R is a differentiable function such that f′(0)=f′(1)=0, is it true that there exists a c∈(0,1), such that f′(c)=0 as well? If not, give a counter-example.
It may not be true. Let g(x)=e−1/x for x∈(0,1] and g(0)=0. Then g′(0)=0. Let f(x)=g(x)/(g(x)+g(1−x)). We can prove that f(x) is strictly monotone in (0,1), and f(0)=0,f(1)=1.
3. Ross Ex 29.3
Consider the interval [0,2], the slope of the segment 2−0f(2)−f(0)=1/2, hence there is an x1∈(0,2), such that f′(x1)=1/2.
Consider the interval [1,2], by mean value theorem, there is a x2∈(1,2), such that f′(x2)=0.
By the intermediate value theorem, since 1/7∈(0,1/2), there is an x3∈(x1,x2) or (x2,x1), such that f′(x3)=1/7.
4. Ross Ex 29.5
We can prove that f′(x)=0 for all x, indeed, we have
h→0lim∣∣∣∣∣hf(x+h)−f(x)∣∣∣∣∣≤h→0limh=0.
Thus, for any x1,x2∈R, we may apply the mean value theorem to get
f(x1)−f(x2)=(x1−x2)f′(x3)=0
for some x3∈(x1,x2).
5. Ross Ex 30.1
(a) Taking derivatives once both upstairs and downstairs, we get
x→0lim12e2x+sin(x)=2
(b) Taking derivatives twice both upstairs and downstairs, we get
x→0lim2cos(x)=1/2
(c ) Taking derivatives 3 times both upstairs and downstairs, we get
x→∞lim8e2x6=0
(d) Taking derivative once, we get
x→0lim1+x1/2+1−x1/2=1/2+1/2=1
6. Prove that limx→0+x−ne−1/x=0.
Let u=1/x, then we are computing
u→∞limun/eu
We may apply L'Hopital rule n times, and get
u→∞limun/eu=u→∞limn!e−u=0.
math104-f21/hw13.txt · Last modified: 2022/01/11 18:30 by 24.253.46.239