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math104-f21:hw11

HW 11

For the following question: if true, prove it; if false, give a counter-example.

1. Assume f:XYf: X \to Y is uniformly continuous, and g:YZg: Y \to Z is uniformly continuous. Is it true that gf:XZg \circ f: X \to Z is uniformly continuous?

2. If f:(0,1)(0,1)f: (0,1) \to (0,1) is a continuous map, is it true that there exists a x(0,1)x \in (0,1), such that f(x)=xf(x) = x? What if one change the setting to f:[0,1][0,1]f: [0,1] \to [0,1] being continuous, does your conclusion change?

3. A function f:RRf: \R \to \R is called a Lipschitz function, if there exists a M>0M>0, such that f(x)f(y)/xyM|f(x)-f(y)| / |x-y| \leq M for any xyRx \neq y \in \R. Is it true that Lipschitz functions are uniformly continuous? Is it true that all uniformly continuous functions are Lipschitz?

4. Consider the following function f:(0,1)Rf: (0,1) \to \R, f(x)=xsin(1/x)f(x) = x \sin (1/x). If ff uniformly continuous? Give a proof for your claim.

5. Is there a monotone function on [0,1][0,1], such that it is discontinuous at 1/2,1/3,1/4,1/2, 1/3, 1/4, \cdots? If so, give a construction; if no, give a proof.

Solution

1. Assume f:XYf: X \to Y is uniformly continuous, and g:YZg: Y \to Z is uniformly continuous. Is it true that gf:XZg \circ f: X \to Z is uniformly continuous?

Yes, it is uniformly continuous. For any ϵ>0\epsilon>0, by uniform continuity of gg, we can find δ1\delta_1, such that for y1,y2y_1, y_2 with distance less than δ1\delta_1, we have dZ(g(y1),g(y2))<ϵd_Z(g(y_1), g(y_2))<\epsilon. Using uniform continuity of ff, we can find δ2\delta_2, such that dX(x1,x2)<δ2d_X(x_1, x_2) < \delta_2 imples dY(f(x1),f(x2))<δ1d_Y(f(x_1),f(x_2))<\delta_1.

2. If f:(0,1)(0,1)f: (0,1) \to (0,1) is a continuous map, is it true that there exists a x(0,1)x \in (0,1), such that f(x)=xf(x) = x? What if one change the setting to f:[0,1][0,1]f: [0,1] \to [0,1] being continuous, does your conclusion change?

For the first part of the question, the answer is no. For example, f(x)=x2f(x) = x^2, then there is no a(0,1)a \in (0,1), such that f(a)=af(a) = a. One can see from the graph y=f(x)y = f(x), it has no intersection with the diagonal y=xy=x over x(0,1)x \in (0,1).

For the second part of the question, if we are looking for a(0,1)a \in (0,1) such that f(a)=af(a)=a, then the answer is still no, and the counter-example above still works.

Note that, if we are looking for a[0,1]a \in [0,1] (closed interval), such that f(a)=af(a)=a, then the answer is yes. Since if f(0)=0f(0)=0 or f(1)=1f(1)=1, we can take a=0a=0 or a=1a=1. If f(0)>0f(0)>0 and f(1)<1f(1)<1, then we can consider g(x)=f(x)xg(x) = f(x)-x, and note that g(0)>0g(0)>0, g(1)<0g(1)<0, hence by intermediate value theorem there exists a(0,1)a \in (0,1) with g(a)=0g(a)=0, i.e. f(a)=af(a)=a.

3. A function f:RRf: \R \to \R is called a Lipschitz function, if there exists a M>0M>0, such that f(x)f(y)/xyM|f(x)-f(y)| / |x-y| \leq M for any xyRx \neq y \in \R. Is it true that Lipschitz functions are uniformly continuous? Is it true that all uniformly continuous functions are Lipschitz?

Yes, Lipschitz function are uniformly continuous. Since for any ϵ>0\epsilon>0, we can let δ=ϵ/M\delta = \epsilon / M, then xy<δ|x-y| < \delta implies f(x)f(y)Mxy=ϵ|f(x)-f(y)| \leq M |x-y| = \epsilon.

Converse, it is false that all uniformly continuous functions are Lipschitz. For example, consider f(x)=xf(x) = \sqrt{x} on [0,1][0,1]. It is uniformly continuous, since it is continuous on a closed interval [0,1].Thederivativedivergesat. The derivative diverges at x=0$, hence it is not Lipschitz.

4. Consider the following function f:(0,1)Rf: (0,1) \to \R, f(x)=xsin(1/x)f(x) = x \sin (1/x). If ff uniformly continuous? Give a proof for your claim.

Yes, it is uniformly continuous. In class we proved that ff can be extended to [0,1][0,1], by setting f(0)=0f(0)=0. This shows the function ff on [0,1][0,1] is uniformly continuous, hence ff on (0,1)(0,1) is uniformly continuous.

5. Is there a monotone function on [0,1][0,1], such that it is discontinuous at 1/2,1/3,1/4,1/2, 1/3, 1/4, \cdots? If so, give a construction; if no, give a proof.

Yes, there is a monotone function. For example, f(x)=1/nf(x) = 1/n for x[1/(n+1),1/n)x \in [1/(n+1), 1/n) .

math104-f21/hw11.txt · Last modified: 2022/01/11 08:36 by pzhou