In general, we don't have $a^n + b^n \neq (a+b)^n $.
Given $\sum_n a_n$ converge, and $a_n > 0$
One need to show that $x_n$ is bounded from below; $x_n$ is monotone decreasing. These two conditions together show $x_n$ converges to some $x$. Then one need to prove that $x=\sqrt{a}$. Missing any of the three steps would make one lose points.
There are other methods to prove this problem, such as creating an auxillary sequence $y_1 = x_1, y_{n+1} = (y_n + \sqrt{a})/2$, and show that $x_n \leq y_n$ and $y_n \to \sqrt{a}$.
One should start with a Cauchy sequence $\{f_n(x)\}$ in $C(K)$, and construct a function $f(x)$ by taking pointwise limit, define for $x \in [0,1]$, $f(x) = \lim_n f_n(x)$. Thus defined, $f(x)$ is just a function, and may not be continuous, and we don't know yet $f_n \to f$ uniformly or not. Once we show that the convergence is uniform (see solution), then we can use the result that uniform convergence preserve continuity, to conclude that $f$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$, hence $f \in C(K)$.
If a continuous function $f: (0,1) \to \R$ is unbounded, then it means either $\lim_{x \to 0} |f(x)| = \infty$ or $\lim_{x \to 1} |f(x)| = \infty$, since the value of $f(p)$ is finite for any $p \in (0,1)$. For example, consider the function $f(x) = 1/x + 1/(1-x)$, it is an example of unbounded function (and it is not uniformly continuous).
A common mistake is to say, assume $f$ is unbounded, then there exists a $p \in (0,1)$, such that $\lim_{x \to p} f(x)=\infty$. That is not what 'unbounded' mean.
Some approach is like this,
This is an interesting direction, but needs more careful argument to make it work.
Given $A, B$ compact subset of $X$, one need to show that $A \cap B$ is compact.