Solutions to Putnam Group Theory Problems
Random number: 27
1968-B-2. \(A\) is a subset of a finite group \(G\), and \(A\) contains more than half of the elements of \(G\). Prove that each element of \(G\) is the product of two elements in \(A\).
Suppose that \(\exists x \in G\) such that it cannot be written as the product of \(2\) elements from the subset \(A\). We can write \(x\) in \(|G|\) different ways as the product of \(2\) elements from \(G\) as follows:
$$\forall y \in G : y \cdot (y^{-1} x) = x$$
We can write this out as:
$$ y_1 \cdot (y_1^{-1} x) = x$$
$$ y_2 \cdot (y_2^{-1} x) = x$$
$$...$$
$$ y_{|G|} \cdot (y_{|G|}^{-1} x) = x$$
where \(\{y_i\}\) is the set of all elements of \(G\), with \(y_i = y_j\) iff \(i = j\). By assumption, \(x\) can't be written as the product of two elements of \(A\). Let's only consider the \(y \in A\) then, and discard the rest because they are uninteresting. We can reindex \(y\) such that:
$$ y_1 \cdot (y_1^{-1} x) = x$$
$$ y_2 \cdot (y_2^{-1} x) = x$$
$$...$$
$$ y_{|A|} \cdot (y_{|A|}^{-1} x) = x$$
for all \(y \in A\) now. The set of "right-multiples" (I don't know what else to call them) \(\{(y_1^{-1} x),(y_2^{-1} x),...,(y_{|A|}^{-1} x)\}\) is "unique" in the sense that no two elements from this set are equal. If there were two elements equal, we would have for some \(i,j\):
$$ y_i \cdot (y_i^{-1} x) = y_j \cdot (y_j^{-1} x)$$
$$ y_i = y_j$$
But this is a contradiction. Hence the "right-multiples" are unique. There are \(|A|\) right multiples, and because \(|A| > \frac{|G|}{2}\), there must be some "right-multiple" in \(A\). Hence there must be some \(i\) such that both \(y_i\) and \((y_i^{-1} x)\) are in \(A\), completing our proof.
1969-B-2. Show that a finite group can not be the union of two of its proper subgroups. Does the
statement remain true if “two” is replaced by “three”?
Suppose we have a finite group \(G\), and two proper subgroups \(A,B\). Suppose also that \(A \cup B = G\). We know from Lagrange's theorem that \(|A|, |B|\) both divide \(|G|\). But we also know that
$$A\cup B = G$$
$$|A| + |B| \geq |G|$$
Every subgroup must contain the identity element however, because subgroups are closed w.r.t inverses (so for \(x \in S\) we must have \(x^{-1} \in S\)) but they are also closed w.r.t multiplication (so \(x \cdot x^{-1} = e \in S\)). Hence we have:
$$|A| + |B| \geq |G| + 1$$
Because of Lagrange's theorem, we have
$$|A| = \frac{|G|}{a} \text{ , } |B| = \frac{|G|}{b}$$
for some \(a,b \in \mathbb{N}, a,b > 1\). Hence we have the inequality
$$|G|(\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b}) \geq |G| + 1$$
$$(\frac{1}{a} + \frac{1}{b}) > 1$$
which is impossible. Hence we have proven that it is impossible for \(A \cup B = G\).
The statement is not true if you replace "two" with "three"; we can see this for the Klein four-group (that I somehow managed to guess, nice), which is the group \(\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2\). You can take the three proper subgroups \(\{e,a\},\{e,b\},\{e,c\}\) where \(a,b,c\) are the elements of the group.
1972-B-3. Let \(A\) and \(B\) be two elements in a group such that \(ABA = BA^2B\), \(A^3 = 1\) and \(B^{2n−1} = 1\)
for some positive integer \(n\). Prove \(B = 1\).
Answer taken from here because I couldn't figure it out
$$AB^2 = ABA^3B = (ABA)(A^2B) = (BAAB)(A^2B)$$
$$ = BA^2BA^2B = (BA^2)(BA^2B) = (BA^2)(ABA) = B^2A$$
So \(A\) and \(B^2\) commute.
$$AB^{2m}A^2 = B^{2m}$$
Because you can drag the \(A^2\) on the right through all the \(B's\) to the left, because we know that \(A\) commutes with \(B^2\). We are given that \(B\) has a finite odd order, so that means there must exist some \(m\) such that \(B^{2m} = B\). So we have:
$$ABA^2 = B$$
$$AB = BA$$
So \(A\) commutes with \(B\). But then we have:
$$(ABA = BA^2B) \implies (A^2B = A^2B^2) \implies (B = B^2) \implies (B = e)$$
1975-B-1. In the additive group of ordered pairs of integers \((m, n)\) (with addition defined componentwise),
consider the subgroup \(H\) generated by the three elements
$$(3,8) \qquad (4,-1) \qquad (5,4)$$
Then \(H\) has another set of generators of the form
$$(1,b) \qquad (0,a)$$
for some integers \(a,b\) with \(a > 0\). Find \(a\).
I claim that the set of three generators
$$(3,8) \qquad (4,-1) \qquad (5,4)$$
are equivalent to the set of two generators
$$(1,-2) \qquad (0,7)$$
An arbitrary element generated by the first set of three generators is given by \((3a + 4b + 5c, 8a - b + 4c)\), where \(a,b,c \in \mathbb{Z}\) (This is due to the fact that addition over integers is not only commutative). Let \((3a + 4b + 5c) = n\). Then we have the following relations in modulo 7:
$$-2n \equiv -6a - 8b - 10c \equiv a -b + 4c$$
$$8a - b + 4c \equiv a - b + 4c \equiv -2n$$
So every element generated by the first set of generators is of the form \((n,-2n)\) modulo 7. But this is exactly the set of elements described by the second set of generators! So we have that \(a = 7\).
1976-B-2.
Suppose that \(G\) is a group generated by elements \(A\) and \(B\), that is, every element of \(G\) can be written as a finite "word" \(A^{n_1}B^{n_2}A^{n_3}...B^{n_k}\), where \(n_1,n_2,...n_k\) are any integers, and \(A^0 = B^0 = 1\), as usual. Also, suppose that
$$A^4 = B^7 = ABA^{-1}B = 1, \qquad A^2 \neq 1, \qquad \text{and} \qquad B \neq 1$$
(a) How many elements of \(G\) are of the form \(C^2\) with \(C\) in \(G\)?
(b) Write each square as a word in \(A\) and \(B\).
$$ABA^{-1}B = 1$$
$$AB = B^{-1}A$$
This implies that if we have any word constructed of \(A\) and \(B\), we can 'shuffle' the \(A\) parts of the word to the very right, so they pile up at the end. Since \(G\) is generated by \(A\) and \(B\), this implies that every element of \(G\) can be expressed as \(B^nA^m\) for some integral \(n,m\). Now consider what happens when we square this element:
$$(B^nA^m)^2 = B^nA^mB^nA^m$$
We want to now shuffle the first group of \(A\)s past the second group of \(B\)s. The power of the \(A\)s doesn't change as they get shuffled, so we will end up with \(2m\) copies of \(A\) at the right. Each element of \(B\) gets inversed as it passed by a single \(A\). But we know that \(B^7 = 1\), so \(B^{-1} = B^6\). Knowing this, we have that:
$$(B^nA^m)^2 = B^{n + n6^m}A^{2m}$$
We now want to utilise the fact that \(A^4 = B^7 = 1\). For \(m\) even, we have that \((B^nA^m)^2 = B^{2n}A^0\). For \(m\) odd, we have that \((B^nA^m)^2 = B^0 A^2\). So we can enumerate all the squares (of which there are 8):
$$A^2, 1, B, B^2, B^3, B^4, B^5, B^6$$