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Title: integers ( mod n): Post by MonicaMath on Sep 6th, 2009, 4:42pm Hi I have this question to solve, please if you know something can help post it... " If m, n are integers with m<=n, and n>1. If gcd(m,n)>1, (1) show that there exists an integer 1<=k <n such that: mk=0(mod n) {it means that there is integer q with mk=nq} and (2) show that there is no integer y with my=1 (mod n) Thanks in advance for help |
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Title: Re: integers ( mod n): Post by towr on Sep 7th, 2009, 1:05am for 1, use the fact that m and n have a common factor. [hide]You can take k=n/gcd(m,n), then mk is m/gcd(m,n)*n = 0 (mod n)[/hide] For 2, assume that there is such an y, then show that it contradicts that gcd(m,n) > 1 [hide]m y = 1 + q n gcd(m,n) divides the left side, so it must divide the right side. gcd(m,n) divides q n, so it must also divide 1 to divide (1 + q n) But that means it is 1, which contradicts that it is greater than 1. [/hide] |
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