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riddles >> medium >> Irrationality of e
(Message started by: william wu on Dec 12th, 2007, 3:28pm)

Title: Irrationality of e
Post by william wu on Dec 12th, 2007, 3:28pm
Prove that the constant e is irrational.

(Apologies if this has been posted already; moderators, feel free to delete this thread if so.)


Title: Re: Irrationality of e
Post by Aryabhatta on Dec 12th, 2007, 5:16pm
I don't remember seeing a thread on this (nor did a search seem to reveal any threads...)


Here is a proof which involves the infinite series representation of e
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We use the following e = Sum 1/n!

Suppose e = p/q where q > 1 (p, q are integers)

Then consider q!e = Sum_{n=1 to q} q!/n! + Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} q!/n!

The n=1 to q part is an integer.

Consider the nth tern of remaining:
q!/n! = 1/(q+1)(q+2)...(q+n-q) < 1/qn-q


Thus Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} q!/n! < Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} 1/qn-q = 1/(q-1) <= 1

But q!e must be an integer.

Hence e is irrational.
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Title: Re: Irrationality of e
Post by JiNbOtAk on Dec 12th, 2007, 5:20pm
What do you know, Wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_e_is_irrational) has a topic on this.


Title: Re: Irrationality of e
Post by cool_joh on Dec 14th, 2007, 2:43am

on 12/12/07 at 17:16:34, Aryabhatta wrote:
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We use the following e = Sum 1/n!
[/hide]

How can we prove that?

Title: Re: Irrationality of e
Post by pex on Dec 14th, 2007, 3:13am

on 12/14/07 at 02:43:25, cool_joh wrote:
How can we prove that?

As far as I know, we don't have to; it's the definition of e.

Title: Re: Irrationality of e
Post by Hippo on Dec 17th, 2007, 12:52pm

on 12/14/07 at 02:43:25, cool_joh wrote:
How can we prove that?


Suppose e is such a constant that (ex)'=ex.
Than we can approximate ex in 0 by the "infinite polynomial" such that it agrees in each derivative in 0.
The polynomial is \sumk=0\inftyxk/k!.
We can show the error of approximation goes to 0 for an arbitrary large x as more and more sum elements are added together.
Therefore ex=\sumk=0\inftyxk/k!
Special case e=e1=\sumk=0\infty1k/k!.



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