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Title: 1, 2, 6, 42, ... Post by cool_joh on Nov 22nd, 2007, 8:31pm an = an-1 (an-1 + 1) How can we find the common formula for an? |
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Title: Re: 1, 2, 6, 42, ... Post by towr on Nov 23rd, 2007, 12:15am If you mean a closed formula, that may be tricky. I can't find a general method for solving these things (see also http://mathworld.wolfram.com/QuadraticMap.html ) |
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Title: Re: 1, 2, 6, 42, ... Post by Barukh on Nov 23rd, 2007, 1:11am on 11/23/07 at 00:15:11, towr wrote:
It's available here (http://www.research.att.com/~njas/doc/doubly.html). I find the following very beautiful (taken from Sloane A000058 (http://www.research.att.com/~njas/sequences/A000058)): "The greedy Egyptian representation of 1 is 1 = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/7 + 1/43 + 1/1807 + ... " which is the sum of reciprocals of an + 1. |
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Title: Re: 1, 2, 6, 42, ... Post by cool_joh on Nov 23rd, 2007, 4:28am on 11/23/07 at 01:11:46, Barukh wrote:
It's too complicated. I'm not good in English, can someone help me please? |
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Title: Re: 1, 2, 6, 42, ... Post by Barukh on Nov 23rd, 2007, 9:08am Bottom line is this: there exist a constant r, such that an equals to the nearest integer of r2^n (sequence starts at n=0). For this particular sequence, r equals 1.5979... That's kind of cheating since to compute r one needs to know all an-s upfront (formula (19) in the article). The series converges very rapidly, though. Looks like it's the best that could be done (or is known). |
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