|
||||
Title: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 1:34am You make n draws with replacement from a uniformly distributed set of k objects, where n,k[in][bbz]+, n[ge]k. What is the probability that after n draws, every object will have been drawn at least once? |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by Dudidu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:07am Could it be... [hide] Pr(every element is chosen at least once) = 1 - Pr(There is at least one element that ain't chosen) = 1 - [sum]i=1[smiley=supk.gif](-1)i(ki)((k-i)[smiley=diagup.gif]k) n [/hide] ??? |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:09am OK I figured out what I was doing wrong (I was baffled forever) and got an empirically-verified solution, so the problem isn't necessarily as interesting as I thought it was. But I'll leave it here in case someone alreaady looked at it and was intending to reply to it. |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:13am on 10/13/03 at 02:07:45, Dudidu wrote:
Hehe speak of the devil (dudidu posted right before i did). It's very close: [hide] Take out the (-1)^i ... not sure why that was there ... [/hide] |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:22am Another error: [hide] Change the upper limit of the summation from k to k-1 [/hide] |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by Dudidu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:26am For my opinion the [hide] (-1)^i ought to be there since the (ki)((k-i)\k)n describes the probability that at least i elements are not chosen, but it doesn't say that at least (k-i) elements are chosen (thus, the (-1)^i acts as a "balancer" for duplicate cases).[/hide] Do you agree with me ??? |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by Dudidu on Oct 13th, 2003, 2:31am Changing [hide] the upper limit of the summation from k to k-1 is not obligatory since in the [sum] the k-th element equals 0 (so it doesn't matter).[/hide] |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 3:27am on 10/13/03 at 02:26:15, Dudidu wrote:
Darn. You're right! I'm overcounting again. The empirical results were close but apparently I didn't test enough ... by playing with different possible values for n and k, I eventually discovered that my formula yields ridiculous numbers. We may have to use the Inclusion Exclusion principle, which I hoped to not have to use by by considering the complement of the desired event, but alas here we are again ... Might want to check out http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Inclusion-ExclusionPrinciple.html i must go to bed now note: edited a typo addition: on 10/13/03 at 02:31:37, Dudidu wrote:
true, the probability that all colors are missing is zero |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by Dudidu on Oct 13th, 2003, 3:41am We use the Inclusion Exclusion principle but... you might have replaced the (-1)i with (-1)n (being tired ? ;)) Hope this helps. |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by william wu on Oct 13th, 2003, 3:52am yea i meant to say (-1)i i didn't type it wrongly when computing your formula though -- it returns 1.9641 > 1 when n=40 and k=20 let Ei be the event that at least i colors are missing. then we want Pr(E1 U ... U Ek) so to compute this, the inclusion exclusion principle tells us to first add up all those expressions: [sum]i=1 to k Pr(Ei) then we subtract - [sum]1<=i,j<=k Pr(Ei [cap] Ej) = [sum]1<=i,j<=k Pr(Ex) where x = max(i,j) then add + [sum]1<=i,j,p<=k Pr(Ei [cap] Ej [cap] Ep) = [sum]1<=i,j,p<=k Pr(Ex) where x = max(i,j,p) etc ... i'm probably speaking gibberish, i really should go to bed now |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by Dudidu on Oct 13th, 2003, 5:38am It's seems that I made few mistakes, I hope that the following equation deals with all the bugs (Inclusion Exclusion principle): 1 - ([sum]i=1k (-1)k+1 (ik) (k-i)n) / kn. Does it work now ? :) p.s - If explanation is needed, just indicate it. |
||||
Title: Re: Drawing With Replacement Post by THUDandBLUNDER on Oct 13th, 2003, 6:26am William, the solution can be expressed in terms of Stirling Numbers of the Second Kind. http://mathworld.wolfram.com/StirlingNumberoftheSecondKind.html |
||||
Powered by YaBB 1 Gold - SP 1.4! Forum software copyright © 2000-2004 Yet another Bulletin Board |