wu :: forums
« wu :: forums - 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4 »

Welcome, Guest. Please Login or Register.
Nov 28th, 2024, 10:52am

RIDDLES SITE WRITE MATH! Home Home Help Help Search Search Members Members Login Login Register Register
   wu :: forums
   riddles
   putnam exam (pure math)
(Moderators: william wu, towr, Eigenray, Grimbal, Icarus, SMQ)
   4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4
« Previous topic | Next topic »
Pages: 1  Reply Reply Notify of replies Notify of replies Send Topic Send Topic Print Print
   Author  Topic: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  (Read 1612 times)
ThudnBlunder
Uberpuzzler
*****




The dewdrop slides into the shining Sea

   


Gender: male
Posts: 4489
4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« on: Feb 25th, 2005, 4:05am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

Let n be an integer such that 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)4
Prove that n is a perfect square.
 
« Last Edit: Mar 19th, 2005, 6:49am by ThudnBlunder » IP Logged

THE MEEK SHALL INHERIT THE EARTH.....................................................................er, if that's all right with the rest of you.
Eigenray
wu::riddles Moderator
Uberpuzzler
*****






   


Gender: male
Posts: 1948
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #1 on: Mar 18th, 2005, 12:34pm »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

Well, I have something, at least:
Suppose 4n+1 |  4(n!)4+1.
If p | 4n+1, then we must have p > n, otherwise p | n!.
If 4n+1 weren't prime, we'd therefore have 4n+1 >= (n+1)2, which only holds for n<=2, and those cases are easily checked.
Thus p=4n+1 is prime, and is therefore uniquely (up to sign and order) the sum of two squares, p=a2+b2; we therefore want a2=1, b2=4n.
 
Note that 1+4r4 = (1+2r+2r2)(1-2r+2r2) = (r2+(r+1)2)(r2+(r-1)2),
and moreover that the two factors are relatively prime, since (1+2r+2r2,4r)=1.
Thus we have
p | (n!)2 + (n! +- 1)2,
and since n! is relatively prime to p,
(1 +- 1/n!)2 = -1 = (2n)!2   mod p,
and it follows
n! +-  1 = +- (2n)!n!   mod p.
Then I run out of ideas.  One also has
(2n!2)2 = -1 = (2n)!2 mod p,
so 2n!2 = +- (2n)!, i.e., (2n Choose n) = +- 2 mod p.
« Last Edit: Mar 18th, 2005, 12:57pm by Eigenray » IP Logged
ThudnBlunder
Uberpuzzler
*****




The dewdrop slides into the shining Sea

   


Gender: male
Posts: 4489
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #2 on: Mar 19th, 2005, 7:23am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

Quote:
Thus p=4n+1 is prime, and is therefore uniquely (up to sign and order) the sum of two squares, p=a2+b2; we therefore want a2=1, b2=4n.

According to Davenport, there is a result due to Gauss that  
a prime p = 4n + 1 equals a2 + b2 where a = (2n)! / [2(n!)2] (mod p)
Hope this helps.
 
« Last Edit: Mar 19th, 2005, 11:53am by ThudnBlunder » IP Logged

THE MEEK SHALL INHERIT THE EARTH.....................................................................er, if that's all right with the rest of you.
Eigenray
wu::riddles Moderator
Uberpuzzler
*****






   


Gender: male
Posts: 1948
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #3 on: Mar 19th, 2005, 11:17am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

on Mar 19th, 2005, 7:23am, THUDandBLUNDER wrote:

According to Davenport, there is a result due to Gauss that  
a prime p = 4n + 1 equals a2 + b2 where a = (2n)!/[2(n!)2] (mod p)
Hope this helps.

Well, that'll do it: a=+-1 mod p implies a=+-1, so b2=p-a2=4n, and n is square.
 
Do you have a reference for that?  I'm only aware of non-constructive proofs that p is the sum of two squares.  It doesn't seem to be in Hardy&Wright or Niven either.
IP Logged
ThudnBlunder
Uberpuzzler
*****




The dewdrop slides into the shining Sea

   


Gender: male
Posts: 4489
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #4 on: Mar 19th, 2005, 12:55pm »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

I was afraid you would ask that.
No, I don't have the Davenport reference but I might be able to find it.
IP Logged

THE MEEK SHALL INHERIT THE EARTH.....................................................................er, if that's all right with the rest of you.
Eigenray
wu::riddles Moderator
Uberpuzzler
*****






   


Gender: male
Posts: 1948
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #5 on: Mar 19th, 2005, 2:29pm »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

My friend has a copy of Davenport's "The Higher Arithmetic".  Section V.3 states:
 
The second construction is that of Gauss [1825], and this is the most elementary of all to state, though not to prove.  If p=4k+1, take
x = (2k)!/(2 k!2) (mod p),    y= (2k)!x  (mod p),
with x and y numerically less than p/2.  Then p=x2+y2.  A proof was given by Cauchy, and another by Jacobsthal, but neither of these is very simple.
 
He refers to Dickson's History of the Theory of Numbers, vol II ch 6, and vol III ch 2.
IP Logged
Barukh
Uberpuzzler
*****






   


Gender: male
Posts: 2276
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #6 on: Mar 20th, 2005, 12:26am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

Here is something resembling the argument for Gauss's statement, but it is too cryptic for me to comprehend.
 
Maybe, somebody else?
 
Besides, a very beautiful problem!
IP Logged
Deedlit
Senior Riddler
****





   


Posts: 476
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #7 on: Mar 31st, 2005, 6:11am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

Well, characters are just maps from groups to the multiplicative complex plane with certain properties.
 
Quote:
If chi:F_p^* -> C^* is a character of degree 4, then  
t = sum_{c=2}^{p-1} chi(c)chi(1-c)  
is a Gaussian integer r + s i with r^2 + s^2 = p.  

 
OK. Note that degree 4 means that the range is {1,i,-1,-i}. It looks like it has to be onto as well.
 
Quote:
Now consider congruences in Z[i] modulo t.

 
Observe that t generates a lattice with cells of area p.  Each imaginary value will have elements of (t), spaced p spaces apart.
 
Quote:
A priori  
either chi(c) = c^n (mod t) for all c or  
chi(c) = c^{3n} (mod t) for all c (I forget which but never mind).  

 
I don't know why he says "a priori" - it's certainly not "a priori" to me! It looks like chi(c) = c^{3n} (mod t) is the correct version.
 
Quote:
Then 2r = t + complexconjugate(t)  
= sum chi(c)chi(1-c) +  sum chi(c)^3chi(1-c)^3  
= sum_c c^n(1-c)^n + sum c^{3n} (1-c)^{3n} (mod t).  

 
Sure.
 
Quote:
Considering this tast modulo p, when we expand out by the binomial  
theorem only the term (3n choose n) c^{3n}(-c)^n survives.  
The rest is straightforward.  

 
Well, it's no longer character theory, but it's stopped making sense to me. I don't see either how to cancel all the terms, or to get the values of a and b from there.
 
I'm also not sure why (2n)!2 = -1 (mod p). Something simple, I'm sure...
IP Logged
Barukh
Uberpuzzler
*****






   


Gender: male
Posts: 2276
Re: 4n + 1 divides 1 + 4(n!)^4  
« Reply #8 on: Apr 2nd, 2005, 4:45am »
Quote Quote Modify Modify

on Mar 31st, 2005, 6:11am, Deedlit wrote:
I'm also not sure why (2n)!2 = -1 (mod p). Something simple, I'm sure...

Here is a simple demonstration.
IP Logged
Pages: 1  Reply Reply Notify of replies Notify of replies Send Topic Send Topic Print Print

« Previous topic | Next topic »

Powered by YaBB 1 Gold - SP 1.4!
Forum software copyright © 2000-2004 Yet another Bulletin Board