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   Author  Topic: Sobolev space  (Read 834 times)
MonicaMath
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Sobolev space  
« on: Apr 13th, 2010, 6:25pm »
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could anyone help me please in proving:  
(1)  If f is in H^1(R2) then df/dr is in H^0(R2),
but:
(2)  If f is in H^1(R2) then its not necesary that  
df/d-theta is in H^0(R2)  
(3) is there a counterexample for the case in (2) ?
 
/ where dr,d-theta are the polar coordinate partial  derivatives of f, and H^s is the Sobolev space on R^2
/
 
I almost did part (1), but still have no idea about part (2) and (3) ? where is the problem in applying  
df/d-thete !!
 
thanx
 
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Obob
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #1 on: Apr 13th, 2010, 7:46pm »
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Replacing theta with t for brevity, recall the formulas
 
d/dr = cos t (d/dx) + sin t (d/dy)
d/dt = -y (d/dx) + x (d/dy)
 
If f is in H^1, then by definition df/dx and df/dy are in H^0.  But if g is in H^0, then g cos t and g sin t are in H^0.  So df/dr is in H^0.
 
On the other hand, the factors x and y mess things up in the second case:  we are given only that df/dx and df/dy are square-integrable, from which it will not usually follow that -y(df/dx) and x(df/dy) are square integrable.
 
It shouldn't be too difficult to come up with a counterexample, but one is eluding me at the moment.
 
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MonicaMath
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #2 on: Apr 13th, 2010, 8:27pm »
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so we are now looking for a function f in H1 with
 y(df/dx) or x(df/dy) not in H^0 !!  
 
 Undecided  how we could make it ??
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Obob
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #3 on: Apr 14th, 2010, 9:02am »
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The function
 
f(x,y) = exp(-(y^4+1)x^2)/sqrt(y^4+1)
 
should do the trick.  It's instructive to try and construct your own example, though.
« Last Edit: Apr 14th, 2010, 9:03am by Obob » IP Logged
MonicaMath
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #4 on: Apr 15th, 2010, 9:23am »
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you mean  
f(x,y) = ( exp(-(y^4+1)x^2) ) / sqrt(y^4+1)
« Last Edit: Apr 15th, 2010, 9:24am by MonicaMath » IP Logged
Obob
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #5 on: Apr 15th, 2010, 9:50am »
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...that's exactly what I wrote.
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MonicaMath
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #6 on: Apr 15th, 2010, 10:28am »
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so you mean  all of the term ( exp(-(y^4+1)x^2) ) is divided by  sqrt(y^4+1)  not the exponent of the exponential...  Cool
 
thank you soo much
« Last Edit: Apr 15th, 2010, 10:29am by MonicaMath » IP Logged
Obob
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #7 on: Apr 15th, 2010, 10:38am »
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Yes, for instance exp(x)/x means (e^x)/x, not e^(x/x), just as sin(x)/x is not sin(x/x).
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MonicaMath
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #8 on: Apr 17th, 2010, 3:49pm »
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Hi again,
 
I just calculated the H0-norm (the L2-norm) of df/dx, df/dy for the above function f(x,y) and the result was finite, but also the H0-norm of -y.df/dx and x.df/dy  are finite? did I miss something?! (I used some software in my calculations)
 
 
thanks
« Last Edit: Apr 17th, 2010, 3:49pm by MonicaMath » IP Logged
Obob
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #9 on: Apr 17th, 2010, 4:49pm »
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The L2-norms of f, df/dx, df/dy, and x.df/dy should all be finite, but the L2-norm of -y.df/dx is infinite.  In fact the integral of (-y.df/dx)^2 with respect to x as x goes from -infinity to infinity should be sqrt(pi/2)y^2/(sqrt(1+y^4)); the integral of this w.r.t. y is clearly infinite.
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MonicaMath
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Re: Sobolev space  
« Reply #10 on: Apr 17th, 2010, 8:53pm »
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yes, you are right.... I made a mistake in my calculations...
 
thanks a lot... your brilliant    Wink
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