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william wu
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Irrationality of e  
« on: Dec 12th, 2007, 3:28pm »
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Prove that the constant e is irrational.
 
(Apologies if this has been posted already; moderators, feel free to delete this thread if so.)
 
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Aryabhatta
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Re: Irrationality of e  
« Reply #1 on: Dec 12th, 2007, 5:16pm »
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I don't remember seeing a thread on this (nor did a search seem to reveal any threads...)
 
 
Here is a proof which involves the infinite series representation of e  

 
We use the following e = Sum 1/n!
 
Suppose e = p/q where q > 1 (p, q are integers)
 
Then consider q!e = Sum_{n=1 to q} q!/n! + Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} q!/n!
 
The n=1 to q part is an integer.
 
Consider the nth tern of remaining:
q!/n! = 1/(q+1)(q+2)...(q+n-q) < 1/qn-q
 
 
Thus Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} q!/n! < Sum_{n=q+1 to oo} 1/qn-q = 1/(q-1) <= 1
 
But q!e must be an integer.
 
Hence e is irrational.
« Last Edit: Dec 12th, 2007, 5:30pm by Aryabhatta » IP Logged
JiNbOtAk
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Re: Irrationality of e  
« Reply #2 on: Dec 12th, 2007, 5:20pm »
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What do you know, Wikipedia has a topic on this.  
 
« Last Edit: Dec 12th, 2007, 5:21pm by JiNbOtAk » IP Logged

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Re: Irrationality of e  
« Reply #3 on: Dec 14th, 2007, 2:43am »
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on Dec 12th, 2007, 5:16pm, Aryabhatta wrote:


We use the following e = Sum 1/n!

How can we prove that?
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pex
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Re: Irrationality of e  
« Reply #4 on: Dec 14th, 2007, 3:13am »
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on Dec 14th, 2007, 2:43am, cool_joh wrote:
How can we prove that?

As far as I know, we don't have to; it's the definition of e.
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Re: Irrationality of e  
« Reply #5 on: Dec 17th, 2007, 12:52pm »
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on Dec 14th, 2007, 2:43am, cool_joh wrote:

How can we prove that?

 
Suppose e is such a constant that (ex)'=ex.
Than we can approximate ex in 0 by the "infinite polynomial" such that it agrees in each derivative in 0.
The polynomial is \sumk=0\inftyxk/k!.
We can show the error of approximation goes to 0 for an arbitrary large x as more and more sum elements are added together.  
Therefore ex=\sumk=0\inftyxk/k!
Special case e=e1=\sumk=0\infty1k/k!.
« Last Edit: Dec 17th, 2007, 12:57pm by Hippo » IP Logged
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